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Medical Council of Canada MCCQE Part 1 Exam Sample Questions (Q148-Q153):

NEW QUESTION # 148
A 33-year-old man with severe bacterial meningitis is intubated and unresponsive in the Intensive Care Unit.
If he receives immediate treatment, his prognosis is excellent. If he does not, he will likely die. Three years ago, the patient had Huntington disease diagnosed, but he has been asymptomatic since then. His advance directive, which was made before this hospitalization, states that he should be allowed to die if he contracts a life-threatening illness. His parents demand that he be treated for the meningitis. Which one of the following is the best next step?

A. Consult a second physician for an opinion on emergent treatment
B. Ask for a current mental capacity assessment
C. Initiate treatment, using the parents as substitute decision-makers
D. Order an electroencephalography
E. Do not provide any treatment other than comfort measures

Answer: E

Explanation:
Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation:
An advance directive is a legally binding document that outlines a competent person's preferences regarding future medical care. If the patient clearly stated a refusal of treatment in the event of a life-threatening condition, this directive must be followed, even if the patient is currently incapacitated and family disagrees.
Toronto Notes 2023 - Ethics and Law:
"Advance directives must be respected when valid, clear, and applicable. Substitute decision-makers cannot override them." MCCQE1 Objectives (ELOM > 90-4: Informed Consent and Advance Directives):
"Candidates must apply valid advance directives to guide care for incapacitated patients." B (parents as SDMs) is incorrect if an advance directive exists. A and D are irrelevant-capacity has already been documented. C is unnecessary when an advance directive is clear.
-

NEW QUESTION # 149
A 26-year-old woman, gravida 2, para 1, presents with a positive pregnancy test. Her previous pregnancy was associated with preeclampsia, and she delivered a 1000 g boy at 34 weeks' gestation. Her blood pressure is 130
/86 mm Hg. Which one of the following is the best recommendation for this pregnancy?

A. Genetic assessment and counseling.
B. Amniocentesis for karyotyping.
C. Prophylactic labetalol.
D. Accurate dating by ultrasound.
E. Complete bed rest starting at 20 weeks' gestation.

Answer: D

Explanation:
Accurate dating is critical in pregnancies at high risk for preeclampsia and intrauterine growthrestriction. First- trimester ultrasound is used to establish gestational age, which guides monitoring and interventions.
Toronto Notes 2023 - Obstetrics, High-Risk Pregnancy:
"In women with a history of preeclampsia, early and accurate dating allows for appropriate fetal surveillance and timely delivery." MCCQE1 Objectives - Obstetrics > Prenatal Care:
"Candidates should recognize the importance of accurate pregnancy dating in high-risk pregnancies." Prophylactic labetalol (E) is not indicated in normotensive patients. Genetic testing (A, B) is not appropriate unless additional risk factors are present. Bed rest (D) is not evidence-based for preeclampsia prevention.

NEW QUESTION # 150
You are working in a busy family practice. Your colleague's 48-year-old female patient presents with a 6- month history of fatigue and gastrointestinal symptoms. A recent colonoscopy was normal. Her chart indicates multiple investigations for similar symptoms over the past 2 years, all of which have been non- revealing. Your working diagnosis is somatic symptom disorder. Which one of the following is the most appropriate treatment?

A. Cognitive behavioral therapy
B. Amitriptyline 10 mg at bedtime
C. Exposure and response prevention therapy
D. Citalopram 20 mg daily
E. Risperidone 0.5 mg daily

Answer: A

Explanation:
Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation:
Cognitive behavioral therapy (CBT) is the most effective first-line treatment for somatic symptom disorder. It helps patients reframe dysfunctional thoughts and improve coping strategies for perceived physical symptoms.
Toronto Notes 2023 - Psychiatry, "Somatic Symptom and Related Disorders":
"CBT is first-line for somatic symptom disorder. Antidepressants may be considered if comorbid depression or anxiety is present." MCCQE1 Objectives (Psychiatry > 71-2: Somatic Symptom Disorders):
"Candidates must manage somatic symptom disorder with appropriate psychosocial interventions." Citalopram (B) or amitriptyline (E) may be used adjunctively if mood symptoms are prominent. Risperidone (C) and ERP (D) are not indicated.
-

NEW QUESTION # 151
A 71-year-old man with stable chronic low back pain on hydromorphone (8 mg twice daily) presents upset, requesting an early refill. He reports his granddaughter has been stealing his medication and pressuring him for refills. Which one of the following is the best next step?

A. Increase the dispensed quantity of the patient's hydromorphone.
B. Arrange for daily dispensing of hydromorphone.
C. Call the police and report the patient's granddaughter.
D. Begin tapering the hydromorphone.
E. Provide an early refill of hydromorphone.

Answer: B

Explanation:
This case suggests diversion of prescription opioids, a serious safety and regulatory concern. The physician must balance maintaining patient care with minimizing risk. Daily dispensing via a monitored pharmacy is the safest and most practical solution to prevent misuse or theft, while avoiding immediate discontinuation of the patient's needed medication.
Toronto Notes 2023 - Chronic Pain & Substance Use:
"In cases of concern for opioid diversion, consider witnessed daily dispensing, prescription monitoring, and involving caregivers when appropriate." MCCQE1 Objectives (Internal Medicine > Pain Management > 56-2):
"The candidate must demonstrate understanding of strategies for safe prescribing and monitoring of controlled substances, including mitigation of diversion." Calling the police (A) is not the physician's immediate duty. Providing an early refill (B) worsens risk.
Tapering (C) may be appropriate later, but first the medication must be safeguarded. Increasing quantity (D) is inappropriate.

NEW QUESTION # 152
A 14-month-old boy is brought to see you for a well-baby check-up and is noted to have onlyone testis.
Ultrasound confirms an undescended testis. Which one of the following is the best next step?

A. Surgical removal of the undescended testis
B. Hormonal therapy with gonadotropins
C. Observation for a year
D. Hormonal therapy with testosterone
E. Surgical orchiopexy

Answer: E

Explanation:
Orchiopexy is the treatment of choice for cryptorchidism and should be performed between 6-18 months of age. Early surgery improves fertility outcomes and reduces malignancy risk.
Toronto Notes 2023 - Pediatrics, Urology:
"Undescended testes should be referred for orchiopexy ideally before 18 months of age. Observation beyond
6 months is not recommended."
MCCQE1 Objectives - Pediatrics > Genitourinary Disorders:
"Candidates must recognize and refer for cryptorchidism early to optimize testicular function and reduce cancer risk." Hormonal therapies (C, D) are not recommended due to limited efficacy. Observation (A) is too late beyond

NEW QUESTION # 153
......

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